300-420 ENSLD:Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD) Update：2026年1月16日 Questions and Answers: 336 Q&A 1. An ISP provides Layer 3 VPN service over MPLS to a customer with four branches and multiple CE routers at each branch. To exchange the routes that are learned from the CE routers, which BGP address family should the ISP activate among the PE routers? A. address-family multicast B. L2VPN EVPN C. VPNv4 unicast D. IPv4 unicast None 2. Which design consideration must be made when using IPv6 overlay tunnels? A. Overlay tunnels that connect isolated IPv6 networks can be considered a final IPv6 network architecture. B. Overlay tunnels should only be considered as a transition technique toward a permanent solution. C. Overlay tunnels can be configured only between border devices and require only the IPv6 protocol stack D. Overlay tunneling encapsulates IPv4 packets in IPv6 packets for delivery across an IPv6 infrastructure. None 3. Which two statements about VRRP object tracking are true? (Choose two) A. The priority of a VRRP device can change in accordance with the up or down status of a VRRP object B. The VRRP interface priority must be manually configured by the administrator C. A VRRP group can track only one object at a time D. VRRP can track the status of interfaces and routes E. VRRP supports only interface tracking 4. A customer reports that each time a networking component fails, OSPF recalculates the backup path, with causes a short outage. Which solution must the customer implement to improve this situation? A. Aggressive OSPF timers B. LFA FRR C. Incremental SPF D. BFD None 5. An engineer is designing a routing solution for a customer. The design must ensure that a failure of network 10.1.0.0/24, 10.1.2.0/24, 10.2.1.0/24, or 10.2.3.0/24 does not impact the core. It also requires fast convergence time during any link failover in the core or access networks. Which solution must the engineer select? A. Add aggregation layer between core and access networks. B. Enable graceful restart on routers A and C. C. Enable FRR for the connected networks of routers A and C. D. Enable summarization on routers A and C. None 6. When expanding an existing Cisco SD-Access network, in addition to the control plane, which two device roles are needed to create an additional fabric site? (Choose two.) A. leaf B. cEdge C. WLC D. edge E. border 7. A company plans to transition to IPv6. They will link their IPv4 addresses to the lowest significant bits of the new Ipv6 addresses. A network administrator with an employee id: 4264:42:116 is preparing a mapping schema for the new IPv6 addresses. Which address does the 172.16.10.0/24 network translate to? A. 2001:db8:abcd::ac10:a00/120 B. 2001:db8:abcd:172:16:10::/96 C. 2001:db8:abcd:11d8:a00/120 D. 2001:db8:ac10:0a00::/64 None 8. Area 10 is a regular OSPF area and networks 10.1.1.0/24 and 172.16.1.0/24 are internal. Which design provides optimal routing between both networks when the link between routers C and E fails? A. Move the link between routers C and D to area 10. B. Create an OSPF virtual link between routers E and F. C. Create a tunnel between routers E and F in area 10. D. Make area 10 a not-so-stubby area. None 9. An engineer is designing a network for a customer running a wireless network with a common VLAN for all APs. The customer is experiencing unicast flooding in the Layer 2 network between the aggregation and access layers. The customer wants to reduce the flooding and improve convergence time. Which solution meets these requirements? A. Migrate all APs to a common Layer 2 access layer switch and run Layer 3 from the aggregation layer to all remaining access layer switches. B. Align HSRP primary and STP root bridges and reduce ARP timers to match CAM timers on the aggregation layer switches. C. Migrate to a Layer 3 access campus design if the APs can run on separate VLANs. D. Align HSRP primary and STP root bridges if the APs cannot run on separate VLANs. None 10. Which two techniques improve the application experience in a Cisco SD-WAN design? (Choose two.) A. utilizing forward error correction B. implementing a stateful application firewall C. implementing AMP D. utilizing quality of service E. implementing Cisco Umbrella 11. What is the purpose of the fabric management plane in a Cisco SD-Access architecture? A. create LISP-based EID for the end-to-end solution that is offered by SD-Access B. enable EID-to-RLOC mapping that is based on the BGP protocol C. create an underlay network that is based on the IS-IS routing protocol D. enable automation techniques for device deployments and configurations None 12. Which two functions is the Cisco SD-Access Edge Node responsible for? (Choose two.) A. Act as anycast layer 3 gateway B. Advertise EID subnets C. Map users to virtual network D. Act as LISP proxy tunnel router E. Route and transport IP traffic None 13. A network solution is being designed for a company that connects to multiple Internet service providers. Which Cisco proprietary BGP path attribute will influence outbound traffic flow? A. Local Preference B. MED C. Weight D. AS Path E. Community None 14. Which NETCONF operation creates filtering that is specific to the session notifications? A. B. C. D. None 15. What are two advantages of the Cisco SD-WAN technology9 (Choose two) A. Improved application experience B. Easier deployment C. Optimized cloud connectivity D. Proactive network management E. Consistent connectivity 16. An engineer is designing a BGP network for a large customer. To permit efficient scaling, the BGP domain is split into clusters. Which peering solution should be used between the route reflectors in different clusters for the BGP routes to be propagated appropriately? A. The route reflectors should be made dents of each other. B. The route reflectors should be nonclients with regards to each other. C. The route reflectors should not have any kind of BGP peering. D. The route reflectors should have peering through another nonclient router. None 17. The customer solution requires QoS to support streaming multimedia over a WAN. An architect chooses to use Per-Hop Behavior. Which solution should the engineer use to of mark traffic traveling between branch sites? A. LLQ with DSCP EF B. CBWFQ with DSCP AF3 C. CBWFQ with DSCP AF2 D. LLQ with DSCP AF4 None 18. Which control-plane technology allows the same subnet to exist across multiple network locations? A. LISP B. VXLAN C. FabricPath D. ISE mobility services None 19. An engineer uses Postman and YANG to configure a router with: OSPF process ID 400 network 192.168.128.128/25 enabled for Area 0 Which get-config reply verifies that the model set was designed correctly? A. B. C. D. None 20. What is the purpose of an edge node in an SD-Access network fabric? A. Edge nodes identify and authenticate endpoints and register endpoint information with control plane nodes. B. Edge nodes track endpoint IDs to location mappings, along with IPv4, IPv6, or MAC addresses. C. Edge nodes are the gateway between the fabric domain and network outside of the fabric. D. Edge nodes resolve lookup requests from edge and border nodes to locate destination endpoint IDs. None 21. A customer with an IPv4 only network topology wants to enable IPv6 connectivity while preserving the IPv4 topology services. The customer plans to migrate IPv4 services to the IPv6 topology, then decommission the IPv4 topology. Which topology supports these requirements? A. dual stack B. 6VPE C. 6to4 D. NAT64 None 22. An engineer working for a service provider with an employee ID: 4863:43:939 must design a solution to provide remote connectivity over the public internet. The design must: securely connect multiple remote sites to the central site provide redundant paths to the central site allow auto path selection based on failure and connection quality support IP multicast minimal configuration at remote sites Which solution must the engineer choose? A. MPLS provided service with BGP B. dual DMVPN with EIGRP routing C. full mesh OSPF with IPsec tunnels D. full mesh ISIS with GRE tunnels and IPsec None 23. Which security functionality does gRPC provide? A. implementing secure server-client tunnels with RSA 20*8 cipher encryption B. mandatory encryption of data at rest using the AES and RSA protocols C. enabling RC6 data-level encryption with CRC check D. supporting secure communication between network devices and control systems using TLS None 24. Which design element should an engineer consider when multicast is included in a Cisco SDAccess architecture? A. PIM SSM must run in the underlay. B. Multicast clients reside in the underlay, and the multicast source is outside the fabric or in the overlay. C. Rendezvous points must be used in a PIM SSM deployment. D. Multicast traffic is transported in the overlay and the EID space for wired and wireless clients. None 25. A network engineer must connect two sites across a public network using a secure tunneling technology that supports multicast traffic. Which technology must be chosen? A. IPsec B. GRE C. PPTP D. GRE over IPsec None 26. An engineer is working for a large cable TV provider that requires multiple sources streaming video on different channels using multicast with no rendezvous point. Which multicast protocol meets these requirements? A. PIM-SM B. PIM-SSM C. any-source multicast D. BIDIR-PIM None 27. Which function do reverse path forwarding mechanisms perform in a multicast deployment? A. They notify the upstream router of multicast traffic. B. They send PIM prune message toward multicast sources. C. They eliminate overlapping multicast addresses D. They prevent loops and duplicate packets. None 28. An architect is designing a network for an enterprise site. The design must use an active/backup design for the WAN. It must guarantee the SLA for several applications regardless of which connection is used. Which deployment model should the architect choose? A. MPLS WAN from two separate ISPs B. hybrid WAN using MPLS VPN and internet VPN from a single ISP C. hybrid WAN using MPLS VPN and internet VPN from two separate ISPs D. internet WAN from two separate ISPs None 29. A customer's current Layer 2 infrastructure is running Spanning Tree 802.1d, and all configuration changes are manually implemented on each switch. An architect must redesign the Layer 2 domain to achieve these goals: reduce the impact of topology changes reduce the time spent on network administration reduce manual configuration errors Which two solutions should the architect include in the new design? (Choose two.) A. Implement Rapid PVST+ instead of STP. B. Implement MST instead of STP. C. Use VTP to propagate VLAN information and to prune unused VLANs. D. Configure broadcast and multicast storm control on all switches. E. Configure dynamic trunking protocol to propagate VLAN information. 30. Which feature is used to optimize WAN bandwidth of IGMP network traffic among WAN Edge routers in the same VPN? A. IGMPv2 B. multicast RP C. multicast-replicator D. multicast service routes None 31. Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the configuration protocols they describe on the right. None 32. A customer’s environment includes hosts that support IPv6-only. Several of these hosts must communicate with a public web server that has only IPv4 domain name resolution. Which solution should the customer use in this environment? A. utilize NAT64 to translate the addresses B. Implement NAT44 at the edge of the customer network C. use 6to4 and a tunnel to translate the addresses D. implement 6PE to resolve hostname resolution None 33. An engineer is designing an OSPF network for a client. Requirements dictate that the routers in Area 1 should receive all routes belonging to the network, including EIGRP, except the ones originated in the RIP domain. Which action should the engineer take? A. Make area 1 a NSSA. B. Make area 1 a stub. C. Make area 1 a standard OSPF area. D. Make the area 1 routers part of area 0. None 34. A Cisco Catalyst switch is configured to.. only one MAC address to be learned manually on interface gkjO/2. Which command must be run to dynamically learn the devices that are connected to the switch port? A.switchport port-security mac-address auto B.switchport port-security mac-address sticky C.switchportGort-security aging D.switchport port-security maximum 1 auto None 35. Drag and drop the properties from the left onto the Cisco SD-WAN components that perform them on the right. None 36. Which type of rendezvous point deployment is standards-based and supports dynamic RP discovery? A. bootstrap router B. Anycast-RP C. Auto-RP D. static RP None 37. What is a challenge of the SaaS model? A. higher initial costs B. lack of application and infrastructure control C. requires upgrades to individual computers to meet performance requirements D. higher application and data integration complexity None 38. An architect must design a solution that uses the direct link between R1 and R2 for traffic from 10.10.10.0/24 toward network 10.10.20.0/24. Which solution should the architect include in the design? A. Configure the OSPF cost of the link to a value lower than 30. B. Lower the Administrative Distance for OSPF area 0. C. Place the link into area 2 and install a new link between R1 and R2 in area 0. D. Configure the link to provide multiarea adjacency. None 39. An engineer must design a WAN solution so that ISP-1 is always preferred over ISP-2. The path via ISP-2 is considered as a backup and must be used only when the path to ISP-1 is down. Which solution must the engineer choose? A. R1: - Routes advertised to ISP-1: 0x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-1: HIGH local-preference - Routes advertised to R2: no action - Routes received from R2: community NO-EXPORT R2: - Routes advertised to ISP-2:5x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-2: LOW local-preference - Routes advertised to R1: community NO-ADVERTISE - Routes received from R1: no action B. R1: - Routes advertised to ISP-1: 0x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-1: HIGH local-preference - Routes advertised to R2: community NO-EXPORT - Routes received from R2: no action R2: - Routes advertised to ISP-2: 5x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-2: LOW local-preference - Routes advertised to R1: no action - Routes received from R1: no action C. R1: - Routes advertised to ISP-1: 0x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-1: LOW local-preference - Routes advertised to R2: community NO-ADVERTISE - Routes received from R2: no action R2: - Routes advertised to ISP-2: 5x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-2: HIGH local-preference - Routes advertised to R1: no action - Routes received from R1: community NO-ADVERTISE D. R1: - Routes advertised to ISP-1: 5x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-1: LOW local-preference - Routes advertised to R2: community NO-ADVERTISE - Routes received from R2: no action R2: - Routes advertised to ISP-2: 0x AS-path prepend - Routes received from ISP-2: HIGH local-preference - Routes advertised to R1: community NO-EXPORT - Routes received from R1: no action None 40. An architect is designing an ISIS network for a customer migrating from IPv4 to IPv6. The current network uses narrow metrics, and the IPv6 areas will increase to 10 within the next two years. Also, IPv6 traffic must not blackhole in IPv4 network during the migration. Which two solutions must the architect choose? (Choose two.) A. multi-topology enabled under address-family ipv6 on C1 and C2 B. metric-style transition enabled on all routers C. multi-topology enabled under address-family ipv6 on E1 and E2 D. metric-style transition enabled on C1 and C2 E. metric-style transition enabled on E1 and E2 41. An engineer is designing a QoS solution for a campus. The design must guarantee real-time traffic delivery during congestion, minimize the bandwidth consumption for possible virus or worm attacks, and reduce flooding of excessive traffic during times of congestion. Which two solutions must the engineer select? (Choose two.) A. Create a shaping policy to drop excessive traffic and a strict queue for real-time traffic. B. Apply queuing on the distribution to core links C. Create a policing policy to drop excessive traffic and a strict queue for real-time traffic. D. Create a scavenger queue for excessive traffic and a strict queue for real-time traffic E. Apply queuing on the access to distribution links. 42. An engineer is designing a campus network with Cisco Catalyst 95CO switches in the aggression layer. The design requires running nonblocking Layer 2 MEC from the aggregation layer to the access layer. The Catalyst switches are located on different campus floors for availability reasons, and each access switch veil contam a single VLAN. Which technology must the engineer choose for the aggregation switches in the design? A. VPC B. VSS C. StackWise Virtual D. StackWise-180 None 43. When differentiating between IETF. OpenConfig. and Cisco native YANG models, how does the use of containers differ? A. OpenConfig uses one container for operational data and another container for configuration data, and IETF and Cisco native models use a single container for operational data and configuration data. B. IETF and Cisco native models use a single container for operational data and configuration data, and OpenConfig uses one container for operational data and another container for configuration data. C. IETF and Cisco native models use one container for operational data and another container for configuration data, and OpenConfig uses a single container for operational data and configuration data. D. Cisco native models use one container for operational data and another container for configuration data, and OpenConfig and IETF use a single container for operational data and configuration data. None 44. An architect is designing a network solution for a customer The network is IPv6-only with 1000 hosts. The design must provide external access to up to 10 concurrent IPv6 hosts to allow communication with legacy IPv4 devices on an adjacent network. The customer set aside 10 IPv4 addresses to allow for one-to-one communication between hosts. Which solution must the architect select? A. stateful NAT64 B. static NAT-PT C. dynamic NPTv6 D. dynamic NAT-PT None 45. Which topology within a network underlay eliminates the need for first hop redundancy protocols while improving fault tolerance, increasing resiliency, and simplifying the network? A. virtualized topology B. routed access topology C. Layer 2 topology D. logical fabric topology None 46. An engineer is designing an IPv4 addressing plan for an enterprise with 1000 branches. Each branch requires a prefix for data and a prefix for voice. Each prefix must accommodate up to 128 hosts, and prefixes must facilitate summarization at aggregation points in the network. The security team requires a simple method for identifying voce prefixes. Which allocation does the engineer recommend from the RFC1918 address space? A. /24 prefixes for data from 10.0.0.0/15 and /24 prefixes for voice from 172.16.0.0/15 B. /24 prefixes for data from 10.0.0.0/8 and /24 prefixes for voice from the next contiguous /24 prefix per site C. /25 prefixes for data from 10.0.0.0/8 end /25 prefixes for voice from the next contiguous /25 prefix per branch D. /24 prefixes for data from 10.0.0.0/8 and /24 prefixes for voice from 172.16.0.0/12 None 47. What is the purpose of a border node in a Cisco SD-Access fabric? A. connect devices to a network B. perform traffic encapsulation and de-encapsulation C. perform network virtualization D. expand a network None 48. An architect is working on a design to connect a company's main site to several small to mediumsized remote branches. The solution must include redundant WAN links, but the customer has a limited budget and wants the ability to increase the link speed easily in the future. QoS will not on the branch routers so there is no need for consistent end-to-end QoS. Which solution does the architect propose? A. dual-homed WAN MPLS with single edge router B. dual-homed Internet with a single edge router running a site-to-site VPN topology C. dual-homed WAN MPLS and Internet links via dual edge routers D. dual-homed Internet with dual edge routers running a hub-and-spoke VPN topology None 49. Which design achieves SD-WAN control plane redundancy? A. Configuring BFD on the WAN Edge routers B. Using multiple instances of vManage in clusters C. Deploying using a virtual platform like UCS or CSP D. Managing the underlay network with OMP None 50. An architect working for a service provider with an employee ID: 4763:44:876 must design a Layer 2 VPN solution that supports: transparency of service provider devices direct communication between CE routers attached to the same VLAN Which solution must the design include? A. multiple VPWS B. single VPLS C. single VPWS D. multiple VPLS None 51. An organization plans to deploy multicast across two different autonomous systems. Their solution must allow RPs to: discover active sources outside their domain use the underlying routing information for connectivity with other RPs announce sources joining the group Which solution supports these requirements? A. MSDP B. SSM C. PIM-SM D. PIM-DM None 52. Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the YANG models they describe on the right. Not all options are used None 53. What is the purpose of service routes in OMP updates? A. specify routes toward a centralized orchestration plane B. describe underlay transport Information C. define the remote management Information D. indicate services that are enabled for service insertion None 54. Which OSPF area blocks LSA Type 3, 4 and 5, but allows a default summary route? A. normal B. stub C. NSSA D. totally stubby None 55. What are two characteristics of a migration from an IP-VPN service to a Cisco SD-WAN architecture? (Choose two.) A. increased solution complexity B. increased security C. increased scalability D. centralized application policies E. distributed control plane 56. How do endpoints inside an SD-Access network reach resources outside the fabric? A. a VRF fusion router is used to map resources in one VN to another VN B. Fabric borders use VRFs to map VNs to VRFs C. SD-Access transit links are used to transport encapsulated traffic from one fabric to another D. A fabric edge is used to de-encapsulate VXLAN traffic to normal IP traffic then transported over the outside network None 57. Which two options can you use to configure an EIGRP stub router? (Choose two) A. summary-only B. receive-only C. external D. summary E. totally-stubby F. not-so-stubby 58. A network engineer must optimize a campus OSPF deployment Currently each time a type 1 or type 2 LSA is generated within an area, the OSPF process must recompute the entire SPT Which solution improves the recomputation process? A. iSPF B. BFD C. SPF D. PRC None 59. An architect is designing a Layer 3 campus network The design must hide network instability, reduce network overhead, and conserve critical device memory Which route summarization solution must the architect select? A. The core layer must advertise a default route toward the aggregation layer The VLAN subnets must be summarized into 10 0 0 0.'16 at the aggregation layer and advertised to the core layer B. The core layer must advertise a default route toward the aggregation layer The VLAN subnets must be summarized into 10 0 0 0/16 at the access layer and advertised to the aggregation layer C. The aggregation layer must advertise a default route toward the access layer. The VLAN subnets must be summarized into 10 0.0 0/16 at the aggregation layer and advertised to the core layer D. The aggregation layer must advertise a default route toward the core layer The VLAN subnets must be summarized into 10 0 0 0.116 at the aggregation layer and advertised to the access layer None 60. A customer has several remote sites connected with their headquarters through microwave links. An engineer must propose a backup WAN solution based on these conditions: Aphysical WAN solution is not available for most of the sites. The customer has a limited budget and a short tmeframe for implementation. The backup link will have low bandwidth requirements. Users will tolerate a WAN outage of up to 2 hours Which backup WAN link type the engineer recommend? A. LTE B. 802.16 WiMAX C. Laser link D. 802.15.1 Bluetooth None 61. An architect reviews the low-level design of a company's enterprise network and advises optimizing the STP convergence time. Which functionality must be to Gi1/0/1-10 to follow the architect's recommendation? A. PortFast B. root guard C. UplinkFast D. BPDU guard None 62. What is an advantage of designing an out-of-band network management solution? A. In the event of a production network outage, network devices can still be managed. B. There is no separation between the production network and the management network. C. In the event of a production network outage, it can be used as a backup network path. D. It is less expensive than an in-band management solution None 63. Due to budget constraints, a customer decided to purchase WAN routers with one LAN and one WAN interface per device. There is a requirement to connect the three sites to ensure high availability without buying additional WAN links. Which design deployment must the customer choose? A. single-homed full mesh B. single-homed hub-and-spoke C. dual-homed hub-and-spoke D. dual-homed full mesh None 64. Drag and drop the properties from the left onto the protocols they describe on the right. None 65. A customer requires maximum uptime for the data plane between R1 and R3 running OSPF Which solution must the design include for high availability if the routing process on R2 requires maintenance? A. BFD on all routers B. nonstop forwarding on R1 and R3 C. nonstop forwarding on R3 only D. graceful restart on all routers None 66. How are wireless endpoints registered in the HTDB in a Cisco SD-Access architecture? A. Fabric edge nodes update the HTDB based on CAPPWAP messaging from the AP B. Fabric WLCs update the HTDB as new clients connect to the wireless network C. Border nodes first register endpoints and then update the HTDB D. Fabric APs update the HTDB with the clients' ElD and RLOC None 67. In Cisco SD-Access. virtual networks create segmentation that allows for separation of users and resources. How is this type of segmentation described? A. macro B. inter-VN C. micro D. stretctied None 68. A customer is planning to onboard three new VPN partner connections in the data center. The new subnets must not overlap with the existing data center network, and the subnet size must not be bigger than necessary. The customer dedicated 10.1.8.0/21 for this design. Ho1// must the subnets be divided to meet these requirements? A.Partner-A:10.1.11.0/25Paftner-B:10.1.12.0/22Partner-C:10.1.11.128/27 B.Partner-A:10.1.11.0/24Partner-B:10.1.13.0/23Partner-C:10.1.12.128/26 C.Partner-A:10.1.41.0/25Partner-B:10.1.13.0/23Partner-C:10.1.11.128/27 D.Partner-A:110.1.12.0/25Partner-B:10.1.13.0/22Partner-C:10.1.12.128/26 None 69. A customer requires a Layer 2 network designed to support: 500 active logical ports trunking of 30 VLANs convergence of less than 1 second Which Spanning Tree Protocol must be selected? A. RPVST+ B. MSTP C. CST D. PVST+ None 70. An engineer must design an in-band management solution for a customer with branch sites. The solution must allow remote management of the branch sites using management protocols over an MPLS WAN. Queueing is implemented at the remote sites using these classes: Class1 equals voice traffic Class2 equals mission-critical traffic Class3 equals default traffic How must the solution prioritize the management traffic over the WAN? A. Mark the traffic with DSCP CS1 and map into Class2 with a minimum bandwidth assigned by reducing the bandwidth available to CIass3. B. Mark the traffic with DSCP CS6 and map into Class1 with a minimum bandwidth assigned by reducing the bandwidth available to Class2 C. Mark the traffic with DSCP EF and map into Class1 with a minimum bandwidth assigned by reducing the bandwidth available to Class2. D. Mark the traffic with DSCP CS2 and map into Class2 with a minimum bandwidth assigned by reducing the bandwidth available to Class3 None 71. An engineer must peer with an ISP for internet connectivity using BGP, initially, the engineer wants to receive only specific prefixes from the ISP and a default route. However, the solution must provide the flexibility to add prefixes in the future at short notice. The ISP has a two-week change process in place. Which route filtering solution must the engineer employ? A. Request a limited internet routing table and a default route from the ISP and configure the BGP max-limit to 1 with an access list that permits only the specific internet prefixes and blocked networks B. Request only the required prefixes and default route be advertised from the ISO with whitelisted networks C. Request a full internet routing table and a default route from the ISP and configure inbound route filtering with a prefix list that permits the default route and required prefixes D. Configure outbound route filtering on the enterprise and ISP so that the enterprise tell the ISP which prefixes are required None 72. A company wants to deploy IPv6 within its existing network infrastructure. All current infrastructure equipment supports IPv6, and the company wants a migration strategy that must not require purchasing additional equipment The plan must keep operational management costs low. support IPv6 multicast, and allow applications to migrate using DNS. Which strategy must the company choose? A. hybrid ISATAP tunnel model B. hybrid manual tunnel model C. service block model D. dual-stack model None 73. Which method will filter routes between EIGRP neighbors within the same autonomous system? A. distribute-list B. policy-based routing C. leak-map D. route tagging None 74. A network engineer must design an MSDP multicast solution to provide RP resilience in a network with two separate domains. Also, multicast sources and receivers must register with the local RP. Which solution must the engineer choose? A. Configure the RP has value to 0, and traffic will route to the closest RP B. Configure the RP loopback interface with the same IP address/32, and traffic will route to the closest RP C. Configure the RP group ranges to split the multicast traffic, and traffic will route to the longest match D. Configure the RP priority with the same value, and traffic will route to the closest RP None 75. Which two steps can be taken to improve convergence in an OSPF network? (Choose two.) A. Use Bidirectional Forwarding Detection B. Merge all the areas into one backbone area C. Tune OSPF parameters D. Make all non-backbone areas stub areas E. Span the same IP network across multiple areas. 76. How is end-to-end microsegmentation enforced in a Cisco SD-Access architecture? A. VLANs are used to segment traffic at Layer 2. B. 5-tuples and ACLs are used to permit or deny traffic. C. SGTs and SGTACLs are used to control access to various resources. D. VRFs are used to segment traffic at Layer 3. None 77. A customer has two eBGP peerings from a single CE router toward two service providers. The customer has hired an architect to design a solution to ensure certain traffic enters the customer's network through interface g¡g0/0. Which solution must the architect include in the design? A. Advertise a lower MED value toward the less preferred service provider. B. Prepend additional AS on the AS path toward the preferred service provider. C. Break aggregated routes into longer prefixes and advertise to the preferred service provider. D. Set a higher local preference to the preferred service provider path. None 78. What is the purpose of a TLOC extension in a Cisco SD-WAN network fabric? A. to facilitate WAN Edge router redundancy within a site B. to identify the physical interface where a WAN Edge router connects to the WAN transport network C. to expand the number of colors that are potentially applied to a network transport interface D. to aggregate multiple physical interfaces into a single logical Interface None 79. Which feature is required for graceful restart to recover from a processor failure? A. Cisco Express Forwarding B. Virtual Switch System C. Stateful Switchover D. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection None 80. An architect is designing a hierarchical ISIS solution for a customer with these requirements: Routers will double In all areas within the next 24 months. Link flaps within areas 20 and 30 must not impact the backbone area. Traffic originating from A201 and A302 routers must connect to application servers in the backbone. Which design must the architect select? A. C201 Level 1/2, A301 Level 1/2 and A102 Level 1/2 B. C101 Level 1/2. A201 Level 1, and A101 Level 2 C. C102 Level 2. A202 Level 2, and A102 Level 1 D. C302 Level 2. A302 Level 1/2. and A101 Level 2 None 81. An engineer is designing a networking solution to allow two hosts to communicate—one host located within the company A network and the other within the company B network. The two companies have no other plans for future additional connections. Both companies want to use a single secure and encrypted internet connection, and the configuration must be as simple as possible. Which network solution must the engineer choose? A. single DMVPN with EIGRP routing B. routed IPsec tunnel with OSPF routing C. policy-based IPsec tunnel with static routing D. MPLS VPN provided service with BGP routing None 82. An existing network solution is using BFD in echo mode. Several of the network devices are experiencing high CPU utilization which an engineer has determined is related to the BFD feature. Which solution should the engineer leverage to reduce the CPU load? A. Implement slow timers between peers with low CPU resources. B. Implement BED asynchronous mode between peers with low CPU resources. C. Enable BFD multi-hop on the devices with low CPU resources. D. Utilize carrier delay on all routers in the network. None 83. Which solution decreases the EIGRP convergence time? A. Enable subsecond timers B. Increase the hold time value C. Increase the dead timer value D. Enable stub routing on the spokes None 84. What is the purpose of a control plane node in a Cisco SD-Access network fabric? A. to maintain the endpoint database and mapping between endpoints and edge nodes B. to detect endpoints in the fabric and inform the host tracking database of EID-to-fabric-edge node bindings C. to identify and authenticate endpoints within the network fabric D. to act as the network gateway between the network fabric and outside networks None 85. Since installing a cisco TelePresence system, the company is experiencing other application having response issues when the system in use. As a result, the company asked an architect to recommend a QoS solution. The customer is currently using a CBWFQ policy to manage traffic on an internet connection with a speed of 100 Mbps. Which link-capacity limit must the architect choose for strict-priority for the real-time traffic? A. 25 Mbps B. 50 Mbps C. 33 Mbps D. 75 Mbps None 86. A network engineer must design a multicast solution based on: Many-to-many communications between the users and sources Support of up to 50 multicast sources Users that must register for steams Which multicast solution must the engineer select? A. Any Source Multicast B. Bidirectional PIM C. Source-Specific Multicast D. Multicast VPN None 87. What does the fabric data plane leverage in SD-Access Architecture? A. LISP protocol to resolve endpoint-to-location mapping B. IS-IS protocol to exchange link-state routing information C. MAC-in-IP encapsulation method to transport of the Layer 2 frame D. BGP protocol to advertise endpoint prefixes outside of the fabric None 88. What is an advantage of using model-driven telemetry in the network? A. It uses interrupt-driven polling to pull data at regular intervals. B. It uses JSON encoding and is compatible with a wide variety of tools on the market. C. It uses MIB models to structure the data that are well known In the industry. D. Telemetry obtains data by parsing the CLI output from show commands. None 89. How is redundancy achieved among Cisco vBond Orchestrators in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment? A. The IP addresses of all Orchestrators are mapped to a single DNS name. B. The closest Orchestrator to each Cisco WAN Edge router is selected. C. Cisco WAN Edge routers are configured with all Orchestrators using their IP addresses and priority. D. A single Cisco Orchestrator is deployed in each network. None 90. Which two overlay network design considerations must be made for a Cisco SD-Access network? (Choose two.) A. LAN automation for deployment B. Layer 3 to the access design C. Reduce subnets and simplify DHCP management D. Dedicated IGP process for the fabric E. Avoid overlapping IP subnets 91. A global organization with several branches hired a network architect to design an overlay VPN solution. The branches communicate with each other frequently. The customer expects to add more branches in the future. To meet the customer's security requirements, the architect plans to provide traffic protection using dynamic IPsec tunnels. Which solution should the architect choose? A. DMVPN B. EasyVPN C. GETVPN D. L2TP None 92. What are the two purpose of the RPF check in multicast routing? A. to ensure that multicast packets are forwarded if they arrived on the interface used to route traffic back to the source address B. to ensure that multicast packets are forwarded if they arrived on the interface used to route traffic to the destination address C. to ensure that multicast packets, no matter the interface they arrived on. are forwarded out all interfaces D. to ensure that multicast packets are dropped if they arrived on the interface used to route traffic E. to ensure that multicast packets are dropped if they arrived on the interface used to route traffic back to the source address 93. An architect is designing a BGP solution to connect a remote branch to a service provider. There are several prefixes within the branch that the company does not want to be advertised to the internet. Which solution should the architect use to accomplish this? A. Set the BGP Internet community for all prefixes. B. Implement the NOPEER community. C. Use the BGP No-Advertise community for the prefixes to exclude. D. Attach the No-Export community with the prefixes to exclude None 94. In an SD-WAN architecture, which methods are used to bootstrap a vEdge router? A. DHCP options or manual configuration B. vManage or DNS records C. ZTP or manual configuration D. DNS records or DHCP options None 95. Which WAN connectivity technology is optimal for edge computing compared to others and why? A. Due to low latency, high bandwidth, and closest proximity to the user. 4G/5G connectivity is the optimal WAN technology for edge computing compared to L3 VPN MPLS connectivity, which offers native separation and security with close proximity to the data center B. Due to high bandwidth, separation and security, and proximity to the data center network DWDM Is the optimal WAN technology lor edge computing compared to 4G/5G connectivity, which offers native separation and security with close proximity to the data center. C. Due to low latency, high bandwidth, and closest proximity to the user, L3 VPN MPLS connectivity is the optimal WAN technology for edge computing compared to 4G/5G connectivity, which offers native separation and security with close proximity to the data center. D. Due to low cost, high bandwidth, low latency, and closest proximity to the edge of the network, Mero Ethernet is the optimal WAN technology for edge computing compared to MPLS, which offers native separation and security with close proximity to the data center. None 96. An engineer must use YANG with an XML representation to configure a Cisco IOS XE switch with these specifications: IP address 10.10.10.10/27 configured on the interface GigabitEthernet2/1/0 connectivity from a directly connected host 10.10.10.1/27 Which YANG data model set must the engineer choose? A. B. C. D. None 97. An engineer is designing a BGP solution for a client that peers with ISP1 for full Internet connectivity and with ISP2 for direct exchange of routes for several third parties. Which action, when implemented on the edge routers, enables the client network to reach the Internet through ISP1? A. Run an eBGP session within different VRFs for each ISP. B. Advertise a default route for downstream routers within the client network. C. Apply the AS-path prepend feature for ISP2. D. Apply route filtering such that the client advertises only routes originated from its own AS. None 98. Which two statements describe source trees in a multicast environment? (Choose two.) A. Source trees guarantee the minimum amount of network latency for forwarding multicast traffic B. Source trees create an optimal path between the source and the receivers C. Source trees use a single common root placed at some chosen point in the network D. Source trees can introduce latency in packet delivery E. Source trees can create suboptimal paths between the source and the receivers 99. An engineer is designing a multicast network for a financial application Most of the multicast sources also receive multicast traffic (many-to-many deployment model). To better routing tables, the design must not use source trees. Which multicast protocol satisfies these requirements? A. BIRDIR-PIM B. PIM-SM C. MSDP D. PIM-SSM None 100. What is a feature of the SaaS subscription model? A. web connection not required B. access to industrial-strength storage and computing power C. autonomy and control over hardware D. tower initial costs None 101. A company’s branch location uses redundant routers and links for connectivity to the headquarters. Also, to use the entire available bandwidth, the branch uses a dynamic routing protocol. An architect must design a multicast streaming solution to avoid RPF check failures because of the current network design. Which deployment model must the architect choose? A. PIM-SM B. BIDIR-PIM C. PIM-BSR D. PIM-SSM None 102. What is the purpose of a Cisco SD-Access underlay network? A. to abstract IP-based connectivity from physical connectivity B. to emulate LAN segments to transport Layer 2 frames over a Layer 3 network C. to establish physical connectivity between switches and routers D. to provide virtualization by encapsulating network traffic over IP tunnels None 1 out of 102 Name Email Time is Up!
